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The practice of intentionally injecting failures to test system resilience is called ________ Engineering.
Answer: Chaos
Chaos Engineering (Netflix Chaos Monkey) proactively tests system resilience by injecting failures (network latency, instance termination) in controlled experiments. Builds confidence in fault tolerance. Requires monitoring, blast radius limits, and automated rollback. Critical for SRE practices.
Which data modeling approach is optimized for analytical queries with denormalized schemas?
- Third Normal Form
- Star Schema
- Entity-Relationship
- Graph Model
Answer: Star Schema
Star Schema (data warehousing) uses denormalized fact tables linked to dimension tables for fast analytical queries. Optimizes read performance at cost of storage redundancy. Contrasts with 3NF (normalized for OLTP). Critical for BI and analytics architecture questions.
Serverless functions automatically scale to zero when not in use, reducing idle resource costs.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Serverless (AWS Lambda, Azure Functions) scales automatically: from zero to thousands of instances based on demand. Pay-per-execution pricing eliminates idle costs. Trade-offs: cold starts, execution time limits, vendor lock-in. Critical for cost-optimized cloud architecture questions.
Which attack exploits speculative execution vulnerabilities in CPUs to leak sensitive data?
- Meltdown/Spectre
- Rowhammer
- BlueBorne
- Log4Shell
Answer: Meltdown/Spectre
Meltdown/Spectre (2018) exploit CPU speculative execution and cache side-channels to read kernel memory or other processes' data. Mitigated via microcode updates, OS patches, and compiler fixes. Highlights hardware-level security challenges. Critical for system security questions.
The regulatory framework for digital lending in India is issued by ________.
Answer: RBI
RBI's Digital Lending Guidelines (2022) regulate: entity eligibility (banks/NBFCs only), direct fund flow, standardized disclosures, cooling-off period, and grievance redressal. Aims to protect consumers from predatory apps and data misuse. Critical for fintech compliance questions.
Which practice involves automatically rolling back deployments when error rates exceed thresholds?
- Canary Release
- Automated Rollback
- Feature Flags
- Chaos Engineering
Answer: Automated Rollback
Automated Rollback uses monitoring alerts (error rate, latency) to trigger immediate reversion to previous stable version. Reduces MTTR and blast radius of bad releases. Implemented via CI/CD pipelines and SRE runbooks. Critical for production reliability practices.
Change Data Capture (CDC) enables real-time replication of database changes to downstream systems.
- True
- False
Answer: True
CDC captures insert/update/delete operations from database logs (binlog, WAL) and streams to targets (Kafka, data lake). Enables real-time analytics, cache invalidation, and event-driven architectures. Tools: Debezium, AWS DMS. Critical for modern data integration patterns.
Which Kubernetes resource provides stable network identity and DNS name for pods?
- Deployment
- StatefulSet
- DaemonSet
- ReplicaSet
Answer: StatefulSet
StatefulSet manages stateful applications: provides stable pod names (pod-0, pod-1), persistent storage, and ordered deployment/scaling. Used for databases, Kafka, etc. Deployment is for stateless apps; DaemonSet runs one pod per node; ReplicaSet manages pod replicas.
The security approach of validating every request as if it originates from an untrusted network is called ________ Security.
Answer: Zero Trust
Zero Trust Security assumes breach and verifies every request regardless of source. Implements: identity verification, least privilege, micro-segmentation, and continuous monitoring. Contrasts with perimeter-based 'castle-and-moat' model. Critical for modern enterprise security architecture.
Which CERT-In direction mandates synchronization of IT system clocks with National Time Server?
- Direction 12
- Direction 20
- Direction 44
- Direction 66
Answer: Direction 20
CERT-In Direction 20 (April 2022) requires service providers to synchronize ICT system clocks with NIC's National Time Server for accurate incident timeline correlation. Also mandates 6-hour incident reporting and 180-day log retention. Critical for cybersecurity compliance questions.
Blue-Green deployment minimizes downtime by maintaining two identical production environments.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Blue-Green deployment: run current version (Blue) and new version (Green) in parallel; switch traffic to Green after validation. Enables instant rollback by reverting traffic. Reduces risk vs in-place updates. Critical for zero-downtime release strategies in DevOps.
Which technology enables distributed processing of large datasets across clusters?
- MySQL
- Apache Spark
- MongoDB
- Redis
Answer: Apache Spark
Apache Spark provides in-memory distributed computing for big data: batch, streaming, ML, graph processing. Faster than Hadoop MapReduce due to in-memory processing. Supports Scala, Python, SQL. Critical for big data engineering and analytics questions.
The pattern of packaging application code with dependencies into a lightweight, portable unit is called ________.
Answer: Containerization
Containerization (Docker, containerd) packages apps with runtime, libraries, and config into isolated, portable containers. Enables consistent deployment across environments. Contrasts with VMs (heavier, OS-level isolation). Foundation of cloud-native architecture. Critical for modern deployment questions.
Which technique analyzes network traffic patterns to detect anomalies without known signatures?
- Signature-based Detection
- Behavioral Analytics
- Heuristic Analysis
- Sandboxing
Answer: Behavioral Analytics
Behavioral Analytics uses ML to establish baselines of normal behavior and flag deviations indicating threats (insider threats, zero-days). Complements signature-based detection. Implemented in UEBA, NDR solutions. Critical for next-gen SOC and threat hunting questions.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2021 require significant social media platforms to appoint a grievance officer.
- True
- False
Answer: True
IT Rules 2021 mandate Significant Social Media Intermediaries (50L+ users) to appoint: Chief Compliance Officer, Nodal Contact Person, and Resident Grievance Officer. Also require traceability of first originator for certain messages. Critical for platform governance and compliance questions.
Which metric measures the time from code commit to production deployment?
- Mean Time to Recovery
- Deployment Frequency
- Lead Time for Changes
- Change Failure Rate
Answer: Lead Time for Changes
Lead Time for Changes (DORA metric) measures time from code commit to successful production deployment. Key indicator of delivery speed and process efficiency. Other DORA metrics: Deployment Frequency, Change Failure Rate, MTTR. Critical for DevOps performance questions.
The process of extracting, transforming, and loading data from sources to a destination is called ________.
Answer: ETL
ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) is foundational data integration process: extract from sources, transform (clean, enrich, aggregate), load to target (warehouse, lake). Modern variants: ELT (load first, transform later) for cloud data platforms. Critical for data pipeline questions.
Which Kubernetes object defines the desired state for a set of identical pods?
- Pod
- Service
- Deployment
- ConfigMap
Answer: Deployment
Deployment manages replica sets of pods: defines replicas, update strategy, rollback, and scaling. Ensures desired state is maintained. Pod is smallest deployable unit; Service exposes pods; ConfigMap stores configuration. Critical for Kubernetes administration questions.
Deception technology uses honeypots and decoys to detect and study attacker behavior.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Deception technology deploys realistic fake assets (servers, credentials, data) to lure attackers, enabling early detection, threat intelligence, and reduced dwell time. Complements prevention/detection controls. Used in enterprise security and critical infrastructure protection. Important for advanced cybersecurity questions.
Which provision of DPDP Act 2023 requires significant data fiduciaries to appoint a Data Protection Officer?
- Section 10
- Section 20
- Section 30
- Section 40
Answer: Section 10
Section 10 of DPDP Act mandates Significant Data Fiduciaries (based on data volume, sensitivity, risk) to appoint DPO, conduct audits, and implement grievance redressal. Enhances accountability for high-risk data processing. Critical for compliance and governance questions.