Create a custom practice set
Pick category, difficulty, number of questions, and time limit. Start instantly with your own quiz.
Generate QuizPick category, difficulty, number of questions, and time limit. Start instantly with your own quiz.
Generate QuizNo weekly quiz is published yet. Check the weekly page for the latest updates.
View Weekly PageFilter by category, type, and difficulty. Reading is open for everyone.
Answer: True
Article 353(b): During National Emergency, Union executive power extends to giving directions to any State on 'manner of exercise' of its executive power. Article 250: Parliament can legislate on State List. Combined effect: State autonomy temporarily suspended; Centre assumes unitary control. Restored post-Emergency. Designed for crisis management, not permanent centralization.
Answer: False
Governor has dual role: (a) Constitutional head of State executive (Article 153-167), (b) Agent of Union for reporting State affairs to President (Article 356). This duality can create tension: Sarkaria Commission recommended Governors act impartially, not as Union agents; appointed after consulting State CM; not removed arbitrarily. Balances federal autonomy with Union oversight.
Answer: True
Article 312: All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS) created by Parliament; recruited/trained by Union (UPSC); serve in State cadres under State control for day-to-day administration. Disciplinary control shared: State initiates proceedings, but major penalties require Union consultation. Balances national standards with State administrative autonomy; key feature of Indian federalism.
Answer: False
Article 249: Rajya Sabha can pass resolution by SPECIAL majority (2/3 of members present and voting) declaring it expedient in national interest that Parliament should legislate on State List subject. Resolution valid for 1 year, renewable. Enables Union legislation on State subjects without Emergency, respecting federal flexibility while ensuring national interest.
Answer: False
Article 143: President may refer questions of law/fact of public importance to SC for advisory opinion. However, advisory opinion is NOT binding on President or government; it's consultative. Writ judgments under Article 32 are binding and enforceable. Advisory jurisdiction complements but does not replace writ jurisdiction; serves different constitutional purposes.
Answer: True
Continuing mandamus: SC/HC keeps writ petition pending and issues periodic directions to executive agencies to ensure compliance with court orders in PIL cases (e.g., environmental protection, police reforms, prison conditions). Enables judicial monitoring of executive action without usurping executive function. Innovative tool for effective rights enforcement.
Answer: True
Supreme Court has held (Daryao case, 1961): Res judicata applies to Article 32 petitions. If HC has decided writ petition on merits under Article 226, same petition cannot be filed in SC under Article 32 on same grounds. Exceptions: (a) Fresh grounds, (b) Change in law, (c) Continuing wrong. Balances finality of litigation with access to justice.
Answer: True
Article 32(1): 'The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by this Part is guaranteed.' Dr. Ambedkar: 'If I was asked to name any particular article in this Constitution as the most important... I could not refer to any other article except this one.' Makes FRs justiciable and enforceable.
Answer: True
Traditional view: Writs only against 'State' under Article 12. Expanded view (Pradeep Kumar Biswas case, 2002): Writs can issue against private bodies if: (a) Function is public in nature, (b) Body is financially/functionally controlled by State, (c) Instrumentality/agency of State. Ensures FR protection against privatized public functions.
Answer: False
Traditional rule required personal injury (locus standi). However, Supreme Court relaxed this through Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in S.P. Gupta case (1981): Any public-spirited person can file petition for enforcement of rights of disadvantaged groups who cannot approach court themselves. Democratized access to justice while preventing frivolous litigation through judicial safeguards.
Answer: False
Key distinction: (a) Prohibition is PREVENTIVE - issued while proceedings are pending, before order, to prevent lower court/tribunal from exceeding jurisdiction, (b) Certiorari is CURATIVE - issued after order is passed, to quash order made without/ excess of jurisdiction. Both available under Articles 32 & 226 against judicial/quasi-judicial bodies.
Answer: False
Article 226: High Courts can issue writs for: (a) enforcement of Fundamental Rights (like SC under Article 32), AND (b) 'for any other purpose' (enforcement of legal rights). Thus, HC's writ jurisdiction is wider substantively (FRs + legal rights) though territorially limited to State. SC's writ jurisdiction is nationwide but limited to FRs.
Answer: True
General principle: Constitutional amendments operate prospectively unless text expressly provides retrospective effect. Cannot validate actions that were unconstitutional when performed (ex post facto validation limited). However, amendments can change law for future cases and sometimes cure procedural defects. Balance between legal certainty and constitutional adaptability.
Answer: True
Kesavananda Bharati (1973) established: (a) Parliament has wide amending power under Article 368, (b) But cannot destroy/alter basic structure of Constitution, (c) Supreme Court is final arbiter of what constitutes basic structure. This balances: parliamentary democracy (elected representatives amend Constitution) with constitutional supremacy (core values protected from transient majorities). Unique Indian model.
Answer: True
Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015): 4:1 majority struck down 99th Amendment and NJAC Act. Held: (a) Collegium system (judges appointing judges) is part of basic structure, (b) Executive participation in appointments threatens judicial independence, (c) Primacy of judiciary in appointments essential for separation of powers. Controversial judgment; debate on reform continues.
Answer: True
Article 368(2) proviso: Certain provisions amendable by simple majority (not special majority): (a) Admission/formation of States (Articles 2-3), (b) Citizenship (Part II), (c) Fifth/Sixth Schedule administration, (d) Legislative Councils creation/abolition (Article 169), (e) Salaries/allowances of constitutional functionaries. These are 'constitutional but not under Article 368' amendments.
Answer: True
91st Amendment (2003): (a) Article 75(1A): Union Council max 15% of Lok Sabha strength (min 12), (b) Article 164(1A): Same limit for State Councils, (c) Article 75(1B)/164(1B): Defectors cannot be appointed ministers until re-elected or term ends. Curbs horse-trading, excessive ministerial berths, and political instability.
Answer: True
44th Amendment (1978): Key reforms: (a) 'Armed rebellion' replaces 'internal disturbance' for Emergency, (b) Written Cabinet advice mandatory, (c) Articles 20-21 non-suspendable, (d) Lok Sabha can revoke Emergency by simple majority, (e) Restored judicial review powers, (f) Right to Property made legal right (Article 300A). Post-Emergency correction to strengthen democracy.
Answer: True
Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980): SC struck down parts of 42nd Amendment that sought to exclude judicial review of constitutional amendments. Held: judicial review is part of basic structure; Parliament cannot destroy it. Also held balance between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles (Part IV) is basic structure. Reinforced Kesavananda doctrine.
Answer: False
Article 368(2): President 'shall give his assent' to Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed by Parliament (and ratified by States if required). No discretionary power to withhold assent or return for reconsideration. Ensures that once Parliament (and States) approve amendment per procedure, it becomes law without executive veto.