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Parameter-Efficient Fine-Tuning reduces compute costs for adapting large models.
- True
- False
Answer: True
PEFT methods update small subset of parameters, reducing compute/memory.
Feature engineering creates new input variables to improve model performance.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Feature engineering: domain knowledge, transformations, interactions, encoding.
Data lakes store raw data while data warehouses store structured data.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Data lakes store raw structured/unstructured data; warehouses store curated data.
Change Data Capture enables real-time replication of database changes.
- True
- False
Answer: True
CDC captures database operations and streams to targets for real-time analytics.
Indicators of Compromise include malicious IPs, domains, and file hashes.
- True
- False
Answer: True
IOCs are forensic artifacts indicating potential breaches. Used for proactive blocking.
Network segmentation limits blast radius of security incidents in Zero Trust.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Micro-segmentation creates granular security zones, containing breaches and limiting attacker movement.
Positional encodings enable Transformers to understand token order in sequences.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Positional encodings add sequence order information to token embeddings, critical for language understanding tasks.
Complex Event Processing (CEP) enables real-time pattern detection in streaming data.
- True
- False
Answer: True
CEP engines detect complex patterns, correlations, and sequences in real-time streams. Critical for fraud detection, monitoring.
Identity and Access Management (IAM) is critical for enforcing least privilege in Zero Trust.
- True
- False
Answer: True
IAM systems manage user identities, authentication, authorization. Critical for implementing least privilege access controls.
India achieved one of the world's fastest 5G rollouts, covering 300+ cities within 18 months.
- True
- False
Answer: True
India's rapid 5G deployment driven by competitive telecom operators, government policy support, indigenous technology development.
Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) include malicious IPs, domains, and file hashes.
- True
- False
Answer: True
IOCs are forensic artifacts indicating potential breaches. Used for proactive blocking, hunting, and incident response.
CSPM tools continuously monitor cloud configurations for compliance violations.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Cloud Security Posture Management automates detection/remediation of misconfigurations: public storage, weak IAM, unencrypted resources.
Micro-segmentation isolates workloads to limit lateral movement of threats.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Micro-segmentation creates granular security zones around workloads, containing breaches and limiting attacker movement. Critical for Zero Trust implementation.
An outer join returns only the rows that have matching values in both tables.
- True
- False
Answer: False
INNER JOIN returns only matching rows. OUTER JOIN (LEFT/RIGHT/FULL) returns matching rows PLUS unmatched rows from one or both tables, with NULLs for missing side. LEFT JOIN: all left table rows; RIGHT JOIN: all right table rows; FULL OUTER: all rows from both. Essential for comprehensive data analysis and reporting.
The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) health ID is mandatory for availing healthcare services in India.
- True
- False
Answer: False
ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) number is voluntary and consent-based. Citizens can choose to create ABHA ID for convenient access to digital health records, but cannot be denied healthcare services for not having it. Aligns with Supreme Court privacy principles and DPDP Act requirements for voluntary consent in data processing.
Cloud bursting is a hybrid cloud strategy where applications run on-premises and 'burst' to public cloud during peak demand.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Cloud bursting allows organizations to maintain baseline capacity on-premises/private cloud and dynamically scale to public cloud during traffic spikes. Optimizes cost (pay for extra only when needed) while ensuring performance. Requires compatible infrastructure, orchestration tools, and data synchronization between environments.
Zero Trust Architecture assumes that threats can exist both outside and inside the traditional network perimeter.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Zero Trust operates on 'never trust, always verify' principle. It eliminates implicit trust based on network location, requiring strict identity verification for every access request regardless of origin. Implements micro-segmentation, least-privilege access, continuous monitoring, and assumes breach mindset for robust security posture.
PSLV has four stages using solid and liquid propulsion alternately.
- True
- False
Answer: True
PSLV has four stages: 1st and 3rd use solid propellant; 2nd and 4th use liquid propellant. Strap-on solid boosters enhance lift-off thrust. This alternating design optimizes performance for polar and sun-synchronous orbits. PSLV's reliability and versatility made it ISRO's workhorse for earth observation and small satellite launches.
NoSQL databases do not support ACID transactions at all.
- True
- False
Answer: False
Many modern NoSQL databases support ACID transactions, at least for single-document or single-partition operations. Examples: MongoDB (multi-document ACID since 4.0), Cassandra (lightweight transactions), Google Spanner (globally distributed ACID). Trade-offs exist between consistency, availability, and partition tolerance (CAP theorem).
The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act 2023 applies to processing of digital personal data within India and also to processing outside India if it relates to offering goods/services to individuals in India.
- True
- False
Answer: True
DPDP Act 2023 has extraterritorial application: it governs processing of digital personal data (1) within India, and (2) outside India if it involves profiling or offering goods/services to individuals in India. Aligns with global frameworks like GDPR. Establishes Data Protection Board and mandates consent, purpose limitation, and data principal rights.