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Under Section 29B of Representation of People Act, 1951, political parties must disclose donations above ₹20,000 to the Election Commission.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Section 29B, R.P. Act: Political parties can accept donations; donations above ₹20,000 must be reported to ECI with donor details. Electoral Bonds Scheme (2018-2024) allowed anonymous donations via banks, but Supreme Court struck it down in 2024 (ADR case) citing transparency and right to information. Ongoing debate on political funding reforms.
For recognition as a National Party, a political party must secure at least 6% of valid votes in Lok Sabha or Assembly elections in at least how many States, along with winning 4 Lok Sabha seats?
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Answer: 4
Election Symbols Order, 1968 (as amended): National Party criteria include: (a) 6% votes in 4+ States + 4 Lok Sabha seats, OR (b) 2% Lok Sabha seats from 3+ States, OR (c) recognition as State Party in 4+ States. Recognition grants benefits: reserved symbol nationwide, broadcast time, campaign advantages. Criteria revised periodically by ECI.
The 'None of the Above' (NOTA) option was introduced in Indian elections following a Supreme Court judgment in ______ case (2013).
- People's Union for Civil Liberties
- Association for Democratic Reforms
- Common Cause
- Nandini Sundar
Answer: People's Union for Civil Liberties
PUCL v. Union of India (2013): SC directed ECI to provide NOTA option in EVMs/ballot papers to enable voters to reject all candidates if dissatisfied. NOTA votes don't affect election outcome (candidate with most votes wins regardless), but serves as expression of dissent. Debate continues on making NOTA consequential (e.g., fresh elections if NOTA gets majority).
The Model Code of Conduct for political parties and candidates during elections is a statutory provision enforceable by courts.
- True
- False
Answer: False
MCC is not statutory; it's a set of guidelines evolved by consensus among political parties and enforced by EC under Article 324's plenary powers. Violations can lead to EC actions: censure, campaign ban, derecognition, but not criminal prosecution. Supreme Court has upheld EC's power to enforce MCC as part of 'direction and control' of elections.
Under the Tenth Schedule, questions of disqualification on grounds of defection are decided by the ______ of the House, subject to judicial review.
- Chief Justice
- President/Governor
- Speaker/Chairman
- Election Commission
Answer: Speaker/Chairman
Paragraph 6(1) of Tenth Schedule: Speaker of Lok Sabha/State Assembly or Chairman of Rajya Sabha/State Council decides disqualification petitions. Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) held decision subject to judicial review on constitutional grounds. Controversy exists over Speaker's impartiality when belonging to ruling party; reforms debated to transfer power to independent tribunal.
Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies is done by a Delimitation Commission based on the latest ______ data, as per Article 82 and 170.
- economic survey
- census
- electoral roll
- population projection
Answer: census
Article 82 (Parliament) and Article 170 (State Assemblies): Delimitation of constituencies based on latest census figures. However, 42nd Amendment (1976) froze delimitation based on 1971 census till 2001; 84th Amendment (2001) extended freeze till first census after 2026. Aims to encourage population control measures without penalizing States that control population growth.
Rights-based legislations typically establish dedicated monitoring bodies; for example, the RTE Act mandates constitution of National/State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights to monitor implementation.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Rights-based legislations often create monitoring architecture: (a) RTE Act: NCPCR/SCPCRs monitor implementation, inquire into violations, (b) NFSA: State Food Commissions monitor PDS, (c) MGNREGA: Social audits by Gram Sabhas, independent evaluations, (d) RTI Act: Information Commissions adjudicate appeals. These bodies provide: (a) Expert oversight, (b) Grievance redressal, (c) Policy recommendations. Effectiveness depends on independence, capacity, resources, and government responsiveness to recommendations.
Technology platforms like Aadhaar-based authentication, DBT, and mobile apps have improved the delivery of benefits under rights-based legislations by reducing leakages and enhancing transparency.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Technology in rights-based delivery: (a) Aadhaar seeding: Reduces ghost beneficiaries in PDS (NFSA), MGNREGA, (b) Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): Ensures wages/subsidies reach beneficiaries directly, (c) Mobile apps: RTI online filing, MGNREGA muster roll access, NFSA ration tracking, (d) GIS mapping: Monitor infrastructure under RTE, MGNREGA. Challenges: Digital divide, privacy concerns, exclusion errors due to authentication failures. Technology is enabler, not substitute for robust institutions and human oversight.
The PC-PNDT Act, 1994 prohibits sex selection before and after conception to prevent female foeticide and improve child sex ratio.
- True
- False
Answer: True
PC-PNDT Act, 1994 (amended 2003): Prohibits: (a) Use of prenatal diagnostic techniques for sex selection, (b) Sale/distribution/use of ultrasound machines without registration, (c) Communication of sex of foetus. Provides for: (a) Regulation of genetic counselling centres, laboratories, clinics, (b) Penalties: imprisonment, fine, license cancellation. Implementation challenges: clandestine practices, social son preference, need for community mobilization alongside enforcement. Critical for addressing gender-biased sex selection.
Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the District Commission can entertain complaints where the value of goods/services and compensation claimed does not exceed ₹______.
- 50 lakh
- 1 crore
- 2 crore
- 5 crore
Answer: 1 crore
Consumer Protection Act, 2019: Three-tier redressal: (a) District Commission: up to ₹1 crore, (b) State Commission: ₹1-10 crore, (c) National Commission: above ₹10 crore. New features: (a) E-filing, video conferencing, (b) Product liability, (c) Unfair trade practices coverage, (d) Central Consumer Protection Authority for class actions. Strengthens consumer rights enforcement; reduces litigation time, cost. Awareness and accessibility remain key challenges.
The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 increased paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks for women in establishments with 10 or more employees.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017: Key changes: (a) Paid maternity leave: 26 weeks (up from 12) for first two children, (b) 12 weeks for adoptive/commissioning mothers, (c) Crèche facility mandatory for establishments with 50+ employees, (d) Work from home option after maternity period. Aims to improve maternal/child health, women's workforce participation. Challenges: potential disincentive for employers to hire women, need for state support for small enterprises.
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 increased reservation for persons with benchmark disabilities in government jobs from 3% to ______.
- 4%
- 5%
- 6%
- 7%
Answer: 4%
RPwD Act, 2016: Replaced PwD Act, 1995. Key provisions: (a) Expanded definition: 21 disabilities (from 7), (b) Reservation: 4% in government jobs (up from 3%), (c) 5% reservation in higher education, (d) Accessibility standards for public buildings/transport, (e) Guardianship provisions respecting autonomy. Aligns with UN Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities (ratified by India, 2007). Implementation challenges: awareness, infrastructure adaptation, attitudinal change.
The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 allows transgender persons to self-perceive their gender identity and obtain a certificate of identity from the ______.
- District Magistrate
- High Court
- National Human Rights Commission
- Ministry of Social Justice
Answer: District Magistrate
Transgender Persons Act, 2019: Provides for: (a) Right to self-perceived gender identity, (b) Certificate of identity from District Magistrate (based on self-declaration), (c) Prohibition of discrimination in education, employment, healthcare, (d) Welfare measures: education, skill development, healthcare access. Criticisms: (a) Certificate requirement undermines self-declaration principle affirmed in NALSA judgment (2014), (b) Inadequate penalties for offences. Balances recognition with implementation concerns.
Under the POCSO Act, 2012, cases of sexual offences against children must be tried in ______ to ensure speedy justice.
- Regular sessions courts
- Fast Track Special Courts
- Juvenile Justice Boards
- Family courts
Answer: Fast Track Special Courts
POCSO Act, 2012: Provides for: (a) Child-friendly reporting, recording, medical examination, trial procedures, (b) Special courts for expedited trial (to be concluded within 1 year), (c) In-camera proceedings, (d) Protection of child's identity, (e) Support person for child. 2019 amendment enhanced punishments, included child pornography. Implementation challenges: low conviction rates, trauma to child witnesses, need for specialized training of judges/prosecutors.
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005 guarantees ______ days of wage employment per household per year in rural areas.
- 50
- 100
- 150
- 200
Answer: 100
MGNREGA, 2005: Guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual wage employment per rural household per year at statutory minimum wages. Features: (a) Legal right to work, (b) Decentralized planning by Gram Sabhas, (c) 60:40 wage-material ratio, (d) Social audit mandatory, (e) Unemployment allowance if work not provided within 15 days. World's largest public works program; reduces distress migration, strengthens rural livelihoods, empowers women (1/3 participation mandate).
Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, priority household beneficiaries are entitled to ______ kg of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices.
- 3
- 5
- 7
- 10
Answer: 5
NFSA, 2013: Entitlements: (a) Priority households: 5 kg/person/month at ₹3/kg rice, ₹2/kg wheat, ₹1/kg coarse grains, (b) Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households: 35 kg/household/month at same prices, (c) Pregnant/lactating women, children 6 months-14 years: nutritious meals, maternity benefit. Covers up to 75% rural, 50% urban population. World's largest food security program; implemented through PDS with Aadhaar seeding, portability.
The RTE Act, 2009 applies to all States and Union Territories except Jammu and Kashmir (prior to 2019).
- True
- False
Answer: True
RTE Act, 2009: Applies to all India except J&K (which had separate Constitution under Article 370). Post-abrogation of Article 370 (2019), RTE Act extended to J&K. Act mandates: (a) Free education for 6-14 years, (b) 25% reservation in private unaided schools for EWS/disadvantaged groups, (c) No detention policy (modified by 2019 amendment), (d) Teacher qualification standards. Implementation varies across States; challenges include infrastructure gaps, teacher shortages, learning outcomes.
The Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online platform launched by the ______ to enable citizens to lodge grievances against any ministry/department/organization of the Government of India.
- Prime Minister's Office
- Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
- Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- NITI Aayog
Answer: Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
CPGRAMS: Launched by DARPG (Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances) in 2007. Features: (a) Online grievance submission, (b) Tracking via unique registration number, (c) Time-bound redressal, (d) Appeal mechanism, (e) Analytics for systemic improvements. Part of broader public grievance redressal reforms to make administration responsive and accountable. Complements RTI, Citizen's Charter, social audit mechanisms.
The Digital India initiative aims to transform governance through technology by ensuring government services are made available to citizens electronically, improving online infrastructure, and increasing internet connectivity.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Digital India (launched 2015): Three vision areas: (1) Digital infrastructure as utility to every citizen, (2) Governance and services on demand, (3) Digital empowerment of citizens. Key components: BharatNet (rural broadband), Common Service Centres, e-Governance platforms (UMANG, DigiLocker), digital payments. Aims to improve transparency, efficiency, accessibility of public services; reduce corruption through technology-enabled accountability.
Under Section 20 of the RTI Act, the Information Commission can impose a penalty of up to ₹______ per day on a Public Information Officer for unreasonable delay in providing information, subject to maximum of ₹25,000.
- 100
- 250
- 500
- 1000
Answer: 250
RTI Act, Section 20(1): Information Commission can impose penalty of ₹250 per day on PIO for: (a) Unreasonable delay, (b) Malafidely denying request, (c) Knowingly giving incomplete/incorrect/misleading information, (d) Destroying information. Maximum penalty: ₹25,000. Also recommends disciplinary action under service rules. Penalty provision ensures accountability of PIOs and effectiveness of RTI regime.