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Article ______ of the Constitution contains the Directive Principle for securing a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout the territory of India.
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
Answer: 44
Article 44 (Directive Principles): 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' Aims to replace personal laws based on religion with common civil law on marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption. Debate: (a) Supporters: Promotes gender justice, national integration, (b) Critics: Threatens religious freedom, cultural diversity. Supreme Court has repeatedly urged implementation (Shah Bano, Sarla Mudgal cases), but political consensus lacking. Recent discussions in Parliament; no legislation yet.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 establishes a Data Protection Board of India and imposes obligations on data fiduciaries to process personal data only for lawful purposes with consent.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: Key features: (a) Applies to processing of digital personal data within India, and outside India if for offering goods/services to Indian individuals, (b) Data fiduciaries must obtain consent, specify purpose, ensure data security, (c) Individuals have rights: access, correction, erasure, grievance redressal, (d) Data Protection Board of India for adjudication, (e) Exemptions for State functions (security, public order, research). Balances privacy rights with legitimate state/business needs; implementation rules pending.
The Indian Penal Code (1860), Code of Criminal Procedure (1973), and Indian Evidence Act (1872) were replaced by three new laws effective from July 1, 2024: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and ______.
- Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
- Bharatiya Nyaya Adhiniyam
- Bharatiya Vidhi Sanhita
- Bharatiya Sakshya Sanhita
Answer: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
New criminal laws (effective July 1, 2024): (a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaces IPC: Adds new offences (mob lynching, terrorist acts), modifies definitions (sedition, murder), (b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaces CrPC: Introduces zero FIR, electronic evidence, time-bound investigation, (c) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaces Evidence Act: Recognizes electronic records as primary evidence, expands admissibility. Aims to decolonize criminal justice, incorporate technology, expedite trials. Implementation challenges: training, infrastructure, transitional issues.
The freeze on delimitation of Parliamentary constituencies based on 1971 census was extended till the first census after ______ by the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001.
- 2001
- 2011
- 2026
- 2031
Answer: 2026
Delimitation freeze: (a) 42nd Amendment (1976): Froze Lok Sabha/Assembly seats based on 1971 census till 2001 to encourage population control, (b) 84th Amendment (2001): Extended freeze till first census after 2026, (c) 87th Amendment (2003): Allowed delimitation based on 2001 census for Assembly constituencies only (not Lok Sabha). Rationale: Prevent penalization of States that controlled population growth; ensure political representation not distorted by demographic changes. Next delimitation expected post-2026 census.
The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 provides for 33% reservation for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, to be implemented immediately after enactment.
- True
- False
Answer: False
106th Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, September 2023): Inserts Article 330A (Lok Sabha) and 332A (State Assemblies) for 33% reservation for women. Implementation: (a) After delimitation exercise based on first census post-enactment, (b) Reserved seats to be rotated after each delimitation, (c) 1/3 of SC/ST reserved seats also reserved for women. Not immediate; requires census and delimitation. Aims to enhance women's political participation; long-standing demand of women's movements.
The Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, 2019 extended reservation for SCs/STs in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies till 2030, but omitted reservation for the ______ community in legislatures.
- Scheduled Castes
- Scheduled Tribes
- Anglo-Indian
- Other Backward Classes
Answer: Anglo-Indian
104th Amendment (2019): (a) Extended SC/ST reservation in Lok Sabha (Article 330) and State Assemblies (Article 332) till 2030 (originally 10 years, extended repeatedly), (b) Omitted Article 331 (President's power to nominate 2 Anglo-Indian members to Lok Sabha) and Article 333 (Governor's power to nominate 1 Anglo-Indian member to State Assembly). Rationale: Anglo-Indian community's distinct identity has diminished; reservation based on social/educational backwardness principle. Controversial but constitutionally valid.
The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 provides 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in education and public employment, excluding those already covered under SC/ST/OBC reservations.
- True
- False
Answer: True
103rd Amendment (2019): Inserted Article 15(6) and 16(6) enabling 10% reservation for EWS among forward castes (not covered under Articles 15(4), 15(5), 16(4)). Criteria: Family income < ₹8 lakh/year, plus other economic/educational indicators. Supreme Court upheld amendment in Janhit Abhiyan case (2022) by 3:2 majority, holding: (a) EWS classification based on economic criteria is valid, (b) 50% ceiling (Indra Sawhney) not inflexible, (c) Exclusion of SC/ST/OBC from EWS quota permissible as they already have separate reservations.
The Mahatma Gandhi NREGA, 2005 mandates ______ of works by Gram Sabhas to ensure transparency and accountability in implementation, reflecting Constitutional Morality's emphasis on participatory governance.
- financial audit
- social audit
- judicial review
- executive monitoring
Answer: social audit
MGNREGA and social audit: Section 17 mandates social audit of all projects by Gram Sabha. Process: (a) Public verification of records, expenditure, beneficiary selection, (b) Gram Sabha discussion and approval, (c) Action on findings. Empowers citizens (especially marginalized) to monitor implementation, detect corruption, ensure accountability. Constitutional Morality requires governance to be participatory, transparent, and responsive to citizens' needs, not just top-down administration.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) promotes ethical governance by enabling courts to address systemic violations of rights affecting marginalized groups. Which case pioneered PIL in India?
- Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
- S.P. Gupta case (1981)
- Vishaka case (1997)
- Bandhua Mukti Morcha case (1984)
Answer: S.P. Gupta case (1981)
S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (First Judges Case, 1981): SC relaxed locus standi rule, allowing any public-spirited person to file petition for enforcement of rights of persons unable to approach court due to poverty, ignorance, or social disadvantage. PIL transformed judicial role: (a) From dispute resolution to social justice delivery, (b) Enabled courts to address prison conditions, environmental degradation, bonded labour, etc. Constitutional Morality requires judiciary to be accessible to all, especially the marginalized.
The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 (right to life) to include the right to a clean and healthy environment, reflecting Constitutional Morality's concern for ______ justice.
- procedural
- intergenerational
- retributive
- corrective
Answer: intergenerational
Environmental jurisprudence and Constitutional Morality: (a) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991): Right to pollution-free water/air part of Article 21, (b) MC Mehta cases: Absolute liability for hazardous industries, (c) Intergenerational equity: Present generation holds environment in trust for future generations (principle in Sustainable Development). Constitutional Morality requires State to balance development with environmental protection, ensuring justice across generations.
The Right to Information Act, 2005 operationalizes the constitutional value of transparency by enabling citizens to seek information from public authorities, thereby promoting ______ governance.
- secretive
- accountable
- centralized
- discretionary
Answer: accountable
RTI Act and accountable governance: (a) Enables citizens to access government information (Section 3), (b) Mandates proactive disclosure by public authorities (Section 4), (c) Provides appeal mechanism through Information Commissions (Sections 15-16), (d) Penalizes non-compliance (Section 20). Transparency reduces corruption, enables informed public participation, strengthens democratic accountability. Constitutional Morality requires State to facilitate, not obstruct, citizens' right to know.
Which constitutional provision implicitly requires civil servants to maintain political neutrality by placing them under the control of the elected executive?
- Article 309
- Article 311
- Article 312
- Article 320
Answer: Article 309
Article 309: Parliament/State Legislature may regulate recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving Union/States. Subject to this, President/Governor make rules. Civil services (IAS, IPS, etc.) serve under elected governments; expected to implement policies impartially regardless of political affiliation. All India Services Rules, Conduct Rules enforce neutrality. Balance: Professional advice to political masters while maintaining constitutional loyalty over partisan loyalty.
Constitutional Morality requires respect for the principle of ______, meaning each organ of the State (legislature, executive, judiciary) must function within its constitutional domain without encroaching on others.
- collective responsibility
- separation of powers
- parliamentary supremacy
- executive privilege
Answer: separation of powers
Separation of Powers (implicit in Indian Constitution; not rigid like USA): (a) Legislature makes laws, (b) Executive implements laws, (c) Judiciary interprets laws and checks constitutionality. Constitutional Morality requires: (a) Courts don't usurp policy-making (judicial restraint), (b) Executive respects judicial orders, (c) Legislature doesn't override judicial review. Balance enables checks and balances while ensuring functional coordination for governance.
The Supreme Court has adopted a 'Charter of Judicial Ethics' that is legally enforceable and violations can lead to removal of judges.
- True
- False
Answer: False
Restatement of Values of Judicial Life (1999): Adopted by Supreme Court as ethical guidelines for judges (independence, integrity, impartiality, etc.). However, it is NOT legally enforceable; violations addressed through: (a) In-house procedure for minor misconduct, (b) Impeachment under Article 124(4) for proved misbehaviour (complex Parliamentary process). Debate continues on strengthening judicial accountability while preserving independence.
Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Prime Minister is brought under Lokpal's jurisdiction with exceptions relating to allegations concerning international relations, public order, and ______.
- economic policy
- atomic energy and space
- administrative efficiency
- personnel matters
Answer: atomic energy and space
Lokpal Act, 2013: PM under jurisdiction but with safeguards: (a) No inquiry into allegations relating to international relations, external security, public order, atomic energy, space, (b) Inquiry requires approval of full bench of Lokpal, (c) Proceedings held in camera, (d) Frivolous complaints dismissed. Balances accountability of highest office with practical governance needs in sensitive strategic areas.
Constitutional Morality requires that all state action must comply with the principle of ______, meaning no one is above the law and all actions must have legal authority.
- separation of powers
- rule of law
- parliamentary sovereignty
- executive discretion
Answer: rule of law
Rule of Law (A.V. Dicey; embedded in Indian Constitution): Core elements: (a) Supremacy of law over arbitrary power, (b) Equality before law (Article 14), (c) Predominance of legal spirit (judicial review). Constitutional Morality operationalizes rule of law: executive actions must have legal basis, laws must comply with Constitution, courts must check excesses. Foundation of accountable, predictable governance.
Under the Representation of People Act, 1951, candidates for Parliament and State Legislatures must declare their assets and liabilities while filing nomination papers.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Section 33A, R.P. Act (inserted per ADR case, 2002): Candidates must file affidavit with Returning Officer disclosing: (a) Criminal cases pending, (b) Assets/liabilities of candidate and spouse, (c) Educational qualification. Affidavits made public on ECI website. Aims to promote transparency, enable voter scrutiny, deter corruption. However, verification and enforcement of disclosures remain challenges.
The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, ______ provides legal protection to persons exposing corruption or misuse of power by public servants.
- 2011
- 2014
- 2016
- 2019
Answer: 2014
Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014: Aims to: (a) Protect persons making public interest disclosures about corruption, misuse of power, criminal offences by public servants, (b) Provide mechanism for inquiry into disclosures, (c) Penalize victimization of whistle blowers. However, not fully notified due to debates on national security exemptions. Highlights tension between transparency/accountability and legitimate confidentiality in governance.
Which body is responsible for enforcing the Code of Conduct for Union Ministers in India?
- Supreme Court
- Prime Minister's Office
- Central Vigilance Commission
- Parliamentary Committee on Ethics
Answer: Prime Minister's Office
Code of Conduct for Union Ministers (1964, revised): Sets ethical standards: (a) No use of official position for personal gain, (b) Avoid conflict of interest, (c) Declare assets, (d) Post-retirement employment restrictions. Enforced by PMO; violations can lead to resignation/removal. Similar codes exist for State Ministers, civil servants. However, enforcement depends on political will; debate continues on independent ethics oversight mechanism.
Article ______ of the Constitution requires Ministers to take an oath to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution and to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
- 75
- 164
- Third Schedule
- Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Third Schedule
Third Schedule: Contains forms of oaths/affirmations for constitutional functionaries. Article 75(4) (Union Ministers) and Article 164(3) (State Ministers) require oath as per Third Schedule. Oath includes: (a) Bear true faith to Constitution, (b) Uphold sovereignty and integrity of India, (c) Faithfully discharge duties, (d) Maintain confidentiality. Formalizes ethical commitment of public office holders to constitutional values.