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Under Article 102(1)(e), a person is disqualified for Parliament membership if they are so disqualified by or under any law made by ______.
- President
- Parliament
- Supreme Court
- Election Commission
Answer: Parliament
Article 102(1)(e) (Parliament) and Article 191(1)(e) (State Legislatures): Disqualification if so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. Representation of People Act, 1951 specifies disqualifications: (a) Conviction for certain offences, (b) Corrupt practices, (c) Government contracts, (d) Office of profit. Enables legislative flexibility to update disqualification criteria while maintaining constitutional framework.
Under Article 344, the Official Language Commission's recommendations are examined by a Committee of Parliament consisting of 30 members, of which ______ are from Lok Sabha.
- 10
- 15
- 20
- 25
Answer: 20
Article 344(4)-(5): Official Language Commission's report examined by Committee of Parliament on Official Language: 30 members (20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha) elected by proportional representation. Committee examines Commission's recommendations and reports to President. Ensures parliamentary oversight of language policy while promoting Hindi progressively without imposing on non-Hindi States.
Article 330 provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the ______.
- Rajya Sabha
- Lok Sabha
- State Legislative Councils
- Local Bodies
Answer: Lok Sabha
Article 330: Reservation of seats for SCs/STs in Lok Sabha in proportion to their population in each State. Article 332 provides similar reservation in State Legislative Assemblies. Originally for 10 years (Article 334), extended repeatedly via constitutional amendments; currently extended till 2030 by 104th Amendment (2019). Ensures political representation of marginalized communities.
Under Article 29(1), any section of citizens residing in India having a distinct language, script, or culture has the right to ______ the same.
- promote
- conserve
- impose
- replace
Answer: conserve
Article 29(1): Cultural-educational right: Any section of citizens with distinct language/script/culture has right to conserve the same. Applies to minorities AND majority groups. Protects linguistic/cultural diversity against homogenization. Complements Article 30 (minority educational institutions). Foundation of India's pluralistic constitutional identity.
Article 371D provides for equitable opportunities for people of different regions of Andhra Pradesh in public employment and education through ______.
- reservations
- quotas
- local area preferences
- merit-based selection
Answer: local area preferences
Article 371D (Andhra Pradesh): President may order equitable opportunities for people of different regions in public employment/education through local area preferences. Implemented via Presidential Orders (1975) creating local cadres, reservation in jobs/education for locals. Addresses regional imbalances; similar provisions debated for other States with regional disparities.
Under Article 346, the language for communication between one State and another, or between a State and the Union, shall be ______, unless States agree to use Hindi.
- Hindi
- English
- Regional language
- Sanskrit
Answer: English
Article 346: Language for communication: (a) Between States: English, unless both agree to use Hindi, (b) Between State and Union: English. Ensures smooth inter-governmental communication despite linguistic diversity. Practical arrangement acknowledging Hindi's limited penetration in non-Hindi States while promoting its progressive use.
Article 371A provides special protection to Nagaland: no Act of Parliament on religious/social practices, Naga customary law, civil/criminal justice involving customary law, or land ownership shall apply to Nagaland unless the ______ decides by resolution.
- Governor
- Chief Minister
- Legislative Assembly
- Tribal Council
Answer: Legislative Assembly
Article 371A (Nagaland): Parliament laws on: (a) religious/social practices, (b) Naga customary law/procedure, (c) civil/criminal justice involving customary law, (d) land ownership/transfer, shall not apply to Nagaland unless Nagaland Legislative Assembly so decides by resolution. Protects Naga identity and autonomy; model for tribal protection in Constitution.
The Sixth Schedule provides for autonomous district councils and regional councils for administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and ______.
- Mizoram
- Nagaland
- Manipur
- Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: Mizoram
Sixth Schedule: Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils for tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram. ADCs have legislative, judicial, administrative powers over: land, forests, agriculture, village administration, inheritance, marriage, social customs. Enables tribal self-governance while remaining within State/Union framework. Unique model of asymmetric federalism.
Article 371J, inserted by the 118th Constitutional Amendment (though not enacted), was proposed to provide special provisions for the ______ region of Karnataka.
- Coastal
- North Karnataka
- Hyderabad-Karnataka
- Malnad
Answer: Hyderabad-Karnataka
Article 371J (proposed): Special provisions for Hyderabad-Karnataka region (6 districts) for: (a) Reservation in education/government jobs for locals, (b) Dedicated development board, (c) Financial allocation for backward region. Though 118th Amendment Bill lapsed, similar provisions implemented via Presidential Order under Article 371(1). Addresses regional imbalances within States.
The Official Languages Act, ______ extended the use of English indefinitely for official purposes of Union alongside Hindi.
- 1950
- 1963
- 1976
- 1992
Answer: 1963
Official Languages Act, 1963: Provided for continued use of English for official Union purposes indefinitely, alongside Hindi. Section 3: English may be used for transactions between Union and States, or between States. Section 6: Hindi to be progressively used for Union official purposes. Pragmatic solution to linguistic diversity while promoting Hindi.
Under Article 345, a State Legislature may adopt any language in use in the State or ______ as the official language of that State.
- English
- Hindi
- Sanskrit
- any Eighth Schedule language
Answer: Hindi
Article 345: State Legislature may adopt: (a) any language in use in State, OR (b) Hindi, as official language(s). Subject to Article 346 (language for communication between States/with Union) and Article 347 (President's direction for recognition of language). Balances State linguistic autonomy with national integration needs.
The Model Code of Conduct for political parties and candidates during elections is enforced by the Election Commission under its plenary powers under Article ______ of the Constitution.
- 324
- 325
- 326
- 327
Answer: 324
Article 324(1): EC has superintendence, direction and control of elections. MCC, though not statutory, is enforced by EC under this plenary power. Violations can lead to: censure, campaign ban, derecognition, filing of FIR. Supreme Court has upheld EC's power to enforce MCC as part of 'direction and control' of elections, ensuring free and fair polls.
The Supreme Court has held that 'voluntarily giving up membership' under Tenth Schedule includes not just formal resignation but also conduct showing ______ with the political party.
- agreement
- disassociation
- collaboration
- consultation
Answer: disassociation
Ravi Naik v. Union of India (1994) and subsequent cases: 'Voluntarily giving up membership' interpreted broadly to include: (a) Formal resignation, (b) Public statements against party, (c) Joining rival party activities, (d) Voting against party whip. Focus on substance over form; prevents technical evasion of anti-defection law while respecting genuine dissent.
The Election Commission mandates recognized political parties to conduct regular organizational elections and maintain records of membership as per the ______ Order, 1968.
- Political Parties Registration
- Election Symbols
- Conduct of Elections
- Representation of People
Answer: Election Symbols
Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968: Recognized parties must: (a) Conduct organizational elections periodically, (b) Maintain membership records, (c) Submit audited accounts to ECI, (d) Follow internal democratic procedures. Non-compliance can lead to derecognition. Aims to promote inner-party democracy, though enforcement remains challenging.
Upon disqualification under Tenth Schedule, the member ceases to be a member of the House and is also barred from being appointed as a ______ until re-election or expiry of term.
- Governor
- Minister
- Speaker
- Committee Chairman
Answer: Minister
Article 75(1B)/164(1B), inserted by 91st Amendment (2003): Person disqualified under Tenth Schedule cannot be appointed as Minister (Union or State) until re-elected or expiry of term, whichever earlier. Prevents reward of defectors with ministerial berths, strengthening anti-defection law's deterrent effect. Applies to CM, PM, and all ministers.
Recognized political parties are allotted ______ symbols by the Election Commission, which are reserved for their exclusive use in elections.
- temporary
- permanent
- reserved
- common
Answer: reserved
Election Symbols Order: Recognized parties get reserved symbols (e.g., BJP's lotus, Congress's hand) for exclusive use in elections across India (National Parties) or respective State (State Parties). Unrecognized parties get free symbols from common pool. Reserved symbols aid voter identification, especially for illiterate voters, strengthening electoral democracy.
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 removed the provision allowing ______ of members to split from a party without disqualification.
- one-half
- one-third
- two-thirds
- three-fourths
Answer: one-third
Original Tenth Schedule allowed 'split' if 1/3 of legislature party members defected. 91st Amendment (2003) deleted this provision to curb defections. Now, only 'merger' exception (2/3 rule) remains. Also added Article 75(1B)/164(1B): Defectors cannot be appointed ministers until re-elected or term ends. Strengthened anti-defection regime.
A nominated member of a House is disqualified under Tenth Schedule if they join any political party after the expiry of ______ months from the date on which they take their seat.
- 3
- 6
- 9
- 12
Answer: 6
Paragraph 2(3) of Tenth Schedule: Nominated members can join a political party within 6 months of taking seat without disqualification. After 6 months, joining any party leads to disqualification. Rationale: Allows nominated members time to align with political groups while preventing opportunistic late affiliations. Applies to Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Council nominated members.
Under Paragraph 2(1)(b) of Tenth Schedule, a member is disqualified if they vote or abstain from voting contrary to the ______ issued by their party, without prior permission.
- notice
- whip
- directive
- order
Answer: whip
Paragraph 2(1)(b): Member disqualified if they vote/abstain contrary to party whip without prior permission, and such act is not condoned by party within 15 days. Whip is formal direction on voting. Exception: If vote/abstention relates to motion of no-confidence, confidence, money bill, or constitutional amendment, whip violation doesn't lead to disqualification (91st Amendment).
A Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within ______ month(s) of its issue, by special majority.
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 6
Answer: 1
Article 352(4): Emergency proclamation must be approved within one month by both Houses with special majority: (a) majority of total membership of each House, AND (b) 2/3 of members present and voting. If Lok Sabha is dissolved, Rajya Sabha approves, but Lok Sabha must approve within 30 days of reconstitution. 44th Amendment (1978) tightened approval requirements to prevent misuse like 1975 Emergency.