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In which case did the Supreme Court first hold that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended by Parliament?
- Shankari Prasad case (1951)
- Sajjan Singh case (1965)
- Golaknath case (1967)
- Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
Answer: Golaknath case (1967)
Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967): 6:5 majority held: (a) Fundamental Rights are 'transcendental and immutable', (b) Parliament cannot amend Part III, (c) Article 368 only prescribes procedure, not power. Led to 24th Amendment (1971) affirming amending power. Kesavananda (1973) later moderated: Parliament can amend FRs but not destroy basic structure.
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 introduced ______ percent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in education and public employment, excluding SCs/STs/OBCs.
- 5
- 10
- 15
- 20
Answer: 10
103rd Amendment (2019): (a) Inserted Article 15(6) allowing State to make special provisions for EWS advancement in education, (b) Inserted Article 16(6) for EWS reservation in public employment. Provides 10% reservation for EWS among forward castes (excluding those covered under Articles 15(4), 15(5), 16(4)). Upheld by Supreme Court in Janhit Abhiyan case (2022) by 3:2 majority.
Some constitutional provisions can be amended by simple majority of Parliament outside Article 368 procedure, such as admission of new States or abolition of Legislative Councils.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Article 368(2) proviso: Certain provisions amendable by simple majority (not special majority): (a) Admission/formation of States (Articles 2-3), (b) Citizenship (Part II), (c) Fifth/Sixth Schedule administration, (d) Legislative Councils creation/abolition (Article 169), (e) Salaries/allowances of constitutional functionaries. These are 'constitutional but not under Article 368' amendments.
Which of the following has NOT been explicitly recognized by Supreme Court as part of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution?
- Judicial review
- Federalism
- Parliamentary form of government
- Right to Property as Fundamental Right
Answer: Right to Property as Fundamental Right
Supreme Court has recognized as basic structure: supremacy of Constitution, republican/democratic form, secularism, federalism, separation of powers, judicial review, rule of law, free/fair elections, parliamentary system, limited amending power, balance between FRs and DPSP, individual dignity. Right to Property was removed from FRs by 44th Amendment; now legal right under Article 300A, not basic structure.
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) by inserting Article ______ for GST Council and amending Seventh Schedule.
- 246A
- 268A
- 279A
- 368A
Answer: 279A
101st Amendment (2016): (a) Inserted Article 246A giving Parliament/State Legislatures concurrent power to make GST laws, (b) Inserted Article 279A for GST Council (chaired by Union FM), (c) Amended Seventh Schedule (Union List, State List, Concurrent List) to subsume multiple indirect taxes. Landmark fiscal federalism reform creating 'One Nation, One Tax'.
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 limits the size of Council of Ministers at Union and State levels to 15% of legislative house strength and bars defectors from being appointed ministers.
- True
- False
Answer: True
91st Amendment (2003): (a) Article 75(1A): Union Council max 15% of Lok Sabha strength (min 12), (b) Article 164(1A): Same limit for State Councils, (c) Article 75(1B)/164(1B): Defectors cannot be appointed ministers until re-elected or term ends. Curbs horse-trading, excessive ministerial berths, and political instability.
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 made which right a Fundamental Right?
- Right to Information
- Right to Education
- Right to Privacy
- Right to Health
Answer: Right to Education
86th Amendment (2002): (a) Inserted Article 21A making free and compulsory education for children 6-14 years a Fundamental Right, (b) Modified Article 45 to focus on early childhood care (below 6 years), (c) Added Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents/guardians to provide education opportunities. Operationalized by RTE Act, 2009.
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies by adding Parts ______ and IXA respectively.
- VIII
- IX
- X
- XI
Answer: IX
73rd Amendment (1992): Added Part IX (Articles 243-243O) for Panchayats. 74th Amendment (1992): Added Part IXA (Articles 243P-243ZG) for Municipalities. Together institutionalized democratic decentralization: mandatory elections, reservations, State Finance Commissions, functional devolution (11th/12th Schedules). Transformed grassroots governance in India.
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 restored many democratic safeguards diluted by the 42nd Amendment and introduced protections against misuse of Emergency powers.
- True
- False
Answer: True
44th Amendment (1978): Key reforms: (a) 'Armed rebellion' replaces 'internal disturbance' for Emergency, (b) Written Cabinet advice mandatory, (c) Articles 20-21 non-suspendable, (d) Lok Sabha can revoke Emergency by simple majority, (e) Restored judicial review powers, (f) Right to Property made legal right (Article 300A). Post-Emergency correction to strengthen democracy.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is often called the 'Mini-Constitution' because it:
- Added the most number of new Articles
- Made comprehensive changes to Preamble, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles, and judicial powers
- Replaced the entire Constitution
- Was passed during National Emergency without debate
Answer: Made comprehensive changes to Preamble, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles, and judicial powers
42nd Amendment (1976): Added 'Socialist', 'Secular', 'Integrity' to Preamble; inserted Fundamental Duties (Part IVA); expanded DPSP; curtailed judicial review; gave Parliament unlimited amending power (later struck down in Minerva Mills). Enacted during 1975-77 Emergency; many provisions diluted by 43rd/44th Amendments post-Emergency.
The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971 was enacted to overcome the Supreme Court's judgment in ______ case (1967), which held Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.
- Golaknath
- Kesavananda Bharati
- Minerva Mills
- Indira Gandhi
Answer: Golaknath
Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967): SC held Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights (Part III). 24th Amendment (1971) added clause to Article 13 clarifying 'law' does not include constitutional amendment under Article 368, and added clause to Article 368 affirming Parliament's amending power including FRs. Set stage for Kesavananda Bharati compromise.
The Supreme Court held in Minerva Mills case (1980) that judicial review is part of the basic structure and cannot be abrogated by constitutional amendment.
- True
- False
Answer: True
Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980): SC struck down parts of 42nd Amendment that sought to exclude judicial review of constitutional amendments. Held: judicial review is part of basic structure; Parliament cannot destroy it. Also held balance between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles (Part IV) is basic structure. Reinforced Kesavananda doctrine.
The 'Basic Structure Doctrine' limiting Parliament's amending power was propounded by the Supreme Court in which landmark case?
- Golaknath case (1967)
- Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
- Minerva Mills case (1980)
- Waman Rao case (1981)
Answer: Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): 13-judge bench held Parliament can amend any part of Constitution but cannot alter its 'basic structure'. Basic features include: supremacy of Constitution, republican/democratic form, secularism, federalism, separation of powers, judicial review, rule of law, individual dignity. Landmark judgment balancing parliamentary sovereignty with constitutional supremacy.
Amendments affecting federal provisions like election of President, extent of executive power, Supreme Court/High Courts, distribution of legislative powers, representation of States in Parliament, or Article 368 itself require ratification by legislatures of not less than ______ of States.
- one-third
- one-half
- two-thirds
- three-fourths
Answer: one-half
Article 368(2) proviso: Amendments affecting federal structure require ratification by legislatures of not less than half of States (by simple majority). Protects States' interests by ensuring Union cannot unilaterally alter federal balance. Examples: 7th Amendment (State reorganisation), 73rd/74th Amendments (local government).
The President can withhold assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by Parliament.
- True
- False
Answer: False
Article 368(2): President 'shall give his assent' to Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed by Parliament (and ratified by States if required). No discretionary power to withhold assent or return for reconsideration. Ensures that once Parliament (and States) approve amendment per procedure, it becomes law without executive veto.
Under Article 368, most Constitutional Amendments require special majority in Parliament. What does 'special majority' mean?
- Simple majority of members present and voting
- Majority of total membership and 2/3 of members present and voting
- Unanimous approval of both Houses
- Approval by half of State Legislatures only
Answer: Majority of total membership and 2/3 of members present and voting
Article 368(2): Special majority = (a) majority of total membership of each House, AND (b) 2/3 of members present and voting. This ensures broad consensus for constitutional changes. Some amendments additionally require ratification by half of State Legislatures (federal provisions).
Which statement best describes the constitutional philosophy behind Emergency provisions in India?
- Enable permanent centralization of power during crises
- Balance national unity and security with federal autonomy and rights protection
- Allow executive to bypass Parliament in all matters
- Transfer all State powers to Union indefinitely
Answer: Balance national unity and security with federal autonomy and rights protection
Emergency provisions reflect constitutional balance: (a) Enable strong Union response to existential threats (war, financial collapse, State breakdown), (b) But include safeguards: written Cabinet advice, Parliamentary approval, judicial review (SR Bommai), non-suspendable rights (Articles 20-21), time limits. Designed for temporary crisis management, not permanent authoritarianism. 44th Amendment strengthened this balance post-1975 experience.
The President can revoke any type of Emergency proclamation at any time by a subsequent proclamation, without requiring ______ approval.
- Parliamentary
- Cabinet
- Judicial
- State Legislature
Answer: Parliamentary
Articles 352(2)(b), 356(1)(c), 360(2)(b): President can revoke Emergency proclamation anytime by subsequent proclamation. No Parliamentary approval needed for revocation (only for imposition/extension). Enables executive to restore normalcy promptly when crisis abates, without legislative delay.
A Proclamation of Financial Emergency under Article 360 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months by special majority.
- True
- False
Answer: False
Article 360(2)(a): Financial Emergency proclamation must be approved by both Houses within 2 months, but by simple majority (not special majority like National Emergency). If approved, remains in force indefinitely unless revoked. Simpler approval reflects that Financial Emergency is economic measure, not political crisis requiring supermajority consensus.
Laws made by Parliament on State List subjects during National Emergency under Article 250 cease to operate ______ after the Emergency ceases.
- immediately
- after 3 months
- after 6 months
- after 1 year
Answer: after 6 months
Article 250(2): Laws made by Parliament on State List during Emergency cease to have effect 6 months after Emergency ends, except for things done/omitted before expiry. Allows transitional period for States to resume legislative competence while preventing permanent Union encroachment on State powers post-Emergency.