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Article 343 of the Indian Constitution declares which language in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union?
- English
- Hindi
- Sanskrit
- Urdu
Answer: Hindi
Article 343(1): Official language of Union is Hindi in Devanagari script. International form of Indian numerals to be used for official purposes. However, Article 343(2) allowed English to continue for 15 years (till 1965) for official Union purposes. Official Languages Act, 1963 extended English indefinitely alongside Hindi for practical administration.
Which statement best captures the objective of the Anti-Defection Law in Indian democracy?
- Prevent all political realignments and mergers
- Curb opportunistic defections while allowing genuine ideological shifts
- Ensure complete party discipline on all legislative votes
- Transfer power from elected representatives to political parties
Answer: Curb opportunistic defections while allowing genuine ideological shifts
Tenth Schedule aims to: (a) Prevent horse-trading and unstable governments by curbing individual/small-group defections for personal gain, (b) Allow genuine realignments via merger exception (2/3 rule), (c) Maintain party discipline on critical votes while respecting dissent through condonation provision. Balance between stability and flexibility; ongoing reforms debated to address implementation gaps like Speaker bias and delayed decisions.
In February 2024, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bonds Scheme holding that it violated which fundamental right?
- Right to Equality (Article 14)
- Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
- Right to Information (implicit in Article 19)
- Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
Answer: Right to Information (implicit in Article 19)
Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India (2024): 5-judge bench unanimously struck down Electoral Bonds Scheme (2018) holding: (a) Anonymous political funding violates voters' right to know (implicit in Article 19(1)(a)), (b) Disproportionate impact on transparency, (c) Potential for quid pro quo corruption. Directed ECI to disclose bond donor-recipient details. Landmark transparency judgment.
In which case did the Supreme Court emphasize that the Speaker must decide disqualification petitions under Tenth Schedule within a reasonable time, failing which courts may intervene?
- Kihoto Hollohan case (1992)
- Keisham Meghachandra Singh case (2020)
- Nabam Rebia case (2016)
- Ravi Naik case (1994)
Answer: Keisham Meghachandra Singh case (2020)
Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Hon'ble Speaker Manipur Legislative Assembly (2020): SC held Speaker must decide Tenth Schedule petitions within reasonable time (suggested 3 months); unreasonable delay undermines law's efficacy. Court can intervene if delay causes irreversible harm. Highlighted need for parliamentary amendment to fix timeframe; reform still pending.
Under Section 29B of Representation of People Act, 1951, political parties can accept donations from individuals and companies, but donations above ______ must be disclosed to the Election Commission.
- ₹10,000
- ₹20,000
- ₹50,000
- ₹1,00,000
Answer: ₹20,000
Section 29B, R.P. Act: Political parties can accept donations; donations above ₹20,000 must be reported to ECI with donor details. Electoral Bonds Scheme (2018-2024) allowed anonymous donations via banks, but Supreme Court struck it down in 2024 (Association for Democratic Reforms case) citing transparency and right to information. Ongoing debate on political funding reforms.
Is there a specific time limit prescribed in the Tenth Schedule for the Speaker to decide disqualification petitions?
- Yes, 30 days
- Yes, 90 days
- Yes, 6 months
- No, no specific time limit
Answer: No, no specific time limit
Tenth Schedule doesn't prescribe time limit for Speaker's decision on disqualification petitions. Supreme Court in Keisham Meghachandra Singh case (2020) recommended Parliament amend Schedule to specify timeframe (e.g., 3 months) except in exceptional cases. Delayed decisions undermine anti-defection law's deterrent effect; reform pending.
Under Paragraph 2(1)(b) of Tenth Schedule, if a member votes contrary to whip, disqualification can be avoided if the party condones the act within how many days?
- 7 days
- 15 days
- 30 days
- 60 days
Answer: 15 days
Paragraph 2(1)(b) proviso: If member votes/abstains contrary to whip without prior permission, disqualification can be avoided if party condones the act within 15 days. Condonation must be explicit; implied approval insufficient. This allows parties flexibility to handle genuine dissent while maintaining discipline on critical votes.
Under the Tenth Schedule, questions of disqualification on grounds of defection are decided by the ______ of the House.
- Chief Justice
- President/Governor
- Speaker/Chairman
- Election Commission
Answer: Speaker/Chairman
Paragraph 6(1) of Tenth Schedule: Speaker of Lok Sabha/State Assembly or Chairman of Rajya Sabha/State Council decides disqualification petitions. Their decision is subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan case, 1992). Controversy exists over Speaker's impartiality when belonging to ruling party; reforms debated to transfer power to independent tribunal.
Under the Tenth Schedule, defection is NOT deemed to have occurred if ______ of the members of a legislature party merge with another party.
- one-half
- two-thirds
- three-fourths
- all
Answer: two-thirds
Paragraph 4 of Tenth Schedule: Merger exception - disqualification doesn't apply if original party merges with another party, OR if not less than 2/3 of members of legislature party agree to merge. This allows genuine ideological realignments while preventing small-group defections. 91st Amendment removed 'split' exception (1/3 rule) to curb defections.
The Anti-Defection Law is contained in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
- Ninth Schedule
- Tenth Schedule
- Eleventh Schedule
- Twelfth Schedule
Answer: Tenth Schedule
Tenth Schedule was inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 to curb political defections. It contains provisions for disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection. Aimed at promoting political stability and preventing horse-trading in legislatures.
Which statement best describes India's approach to Centre-State relations?
- Strict separation of powers with no overlap
- Flexible federalism with Union supremacy in national interest
- Complete State autonomy with minimal Union interference
- Unitary system with ceremonial States
Answer: Flexible federalism with Union supremacy in national interest
Indian federalism: (a) Division of powers via three Lists, but residuary powers with Union, (b) States have executive/legislative autonomy in State List, but Union can legislate during Emergency/with Rajya Sabha resolution, (c) Financial autonomy via tax devolution, but Finance Commission and GST Council ensure coordination, (d) Governor as bridge between Centre-State. Designed for unity in diversity: flexible enough for regional needs, strong enough for national challenges.
Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the provision that amendments affecting federal structure require ratification by half of State Legislatures?
- Original Constitution
- 24th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- 73rd Amendment
Answer: Original Constitution
Article 368(2) proviso (in original Constitution): Amendments affecting: (a) election of President, (b) extent of executive power of Union/States, (c) Supreme Court/High Courts, (d) distribution of legislative powers, (e) representation of States in Parliament, (f) Article 368 itself, require ratification by legislatures of not less than half States. Protects federal features from unilateral Union amendment; foundational federal safeguard.
Under Article 301, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout India is subject to parliamentary power to impose restrictions in public interest under Article 302, but neither Parliament nor State Legislatures can give preference to one State over another under which Article?
- Article 303
- Article 304
- Article 305
- Article 306
Answer: Article 303
Article 301: Freedom of trade/commerce/intercourse throughout India. Article 302: Parliament may impose restrictions in public interest. Article 303(1): Neither Parliament nor State Legislature can make law giving preference to one State over another or discriminating between States by virtue of any entry in Lists. Exception: Article 303(2) allows preference to address scarcity of goods. Balances economic unity with regulatory needs.
Residuary powers (subjects not mentioned in any List) are vested with which level of government in India?
- State Governments
- Union Government
- Local Governments
- Shared equally
Answer: Union Government
Article 248: Residuary powers vested with Parliament (Union). Includes power to make laws on any matter not enumerated in Concurrent or State List, including power to impose taxes not mentioned in either List. Gives Indian federalism strong unitary bias, unlike USA where residuary powers rest with States. Reflects Constituent Assembly's priority for national unity post-Partition.
Under Article 345, a State Legislature may adopt any language(s) in use in the State or ______ as the official language(s) of that State.
- English
- Hindi
- Sanskrit
- any language included in Eighth Schedule
Answer: Hindi
Article 345: State Legislature may adopt: (a) any language in use in State, OR (b) Hindi, as official language(s). Subject to Article 346 (language for communication between States/with Union) and Article 347 (President's direction for recognition of language). Balances State linguistic autonomy with national integration needs.
Under Article 262, Parliament has enacted the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956, which establishes tribunals whose awards have the same force as an order of the ______.
- High Court
- Supreme Court
- President
- Finance Commission
Answer: Supreme Court
Article 262(2): Parliament may exclude jurisdiction of Supreme Court/other courts over inter-State water disputes. Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956: Tribunals' awards have same force as Supreme Court orders; binding on parties. 2019 amendment makes awards final and binding, with implementation monitoring mechanism. Balances judicial finality with specialized expertise.
Under Article 279A, decisions of the GST Council are taken by a majority of not less than 3/4th of weighted votes, where the Union has ______ of total votes and States collectively have ______.
- 1/2, 1/2
- 1/3, 2/3
- 1/4, 3/4
- 2/3, 1/3
Answer: 1/3, 2/3
Article 279A(9): GST Council decisions by 3/4th majority of weighted votes: (a) Union Government: 1/3 vote weight, (b) All State Governments collectively: 2/3 vote weight. Ensures neither Union nor States can dominate; requires consensus on GST rates, exemptions, thresholds. Exemplifies cooperative fiscal federalism in practice.
Under Article 256, States are obligated to exercise executive power to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament. The Union can give directions to States for this purpose under which Article?
- Article 256 only
- Article 257 only
- Both Articles 256 and 257
- Article 258
Answer: Both Articles 256 and 257
Article 256: States must exercise executive power to ensure compliance with Parliament laws and existing laws; Union may give directions. Article 257: Extends to Union directions on matters like construction/maintenance of means of communication of national/military importance, protection of railways, etc. Ensures national policy implementation while respecting State executive domain.
In case of conflict between a Union law and a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List, which law prevails?
- State law always prevails
- Union law prevails unless State law has Presidential assent
- Older law prevails
- Law with more votes prevails
Answer: Union law prevails unless State law has Presidential assent
Article 254(1): In repugnancy between Union and State law on Concurrent List, Union law prevails. Exception under Article 254(2): If State law reserved for President's consideration and receives assent, it prevails in that State (but Parliament can still override by subsequent law). Balances Union supremacy with State flexibility.
Which statement best describes the role of writ jurisdiction in Indian constitutionalism?
- Writs are extraordinary remedies available only in criminal cases
- Writs are procedural technicalities with limited substantive impact
- Writs are powerful tools for enforcing rights, checking executive excess, and ensuring constitutional governance
- Writs can only be issued by Supreme Court, not High Courts
Answer: Writs are powerful tools for enforcing rights, checking executive excess, and ensuring constitutional governance
Writ jurisdiction (Articles 32, 226) is cornerstone of Indian constitutionalism: (a) Enforces Fundamental Rights and legal rights, (b) Checks executive/judicial excesses through judicial review, (c) Ensures accountability via Mandamus, Certiorari, etc., (d) Adapts to new challenges through PIL, continuing mandamus. Empowers courts as guardians of Constitution and protectors of citizens' rights against State power.